Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
09.06.2025 00:01
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What is truer than that which is true?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
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There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If a cat is feminine in German, what article do you give to a male cat?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.